September 22, 2006
Our current affirmative action system is unfairly exclusive. Why are race and gender the only basis to determine whether a group has had equal opportunity? African-Americans weren't the only slaves. What about the Jews? Pharoah, Hitler, etc. Or is the idea to only help the people who America itself discriminated against? Even so, if a minority group immigrates to our country today, America has not yet hurt them, so why would they receive privileges over Europeans who are still getting over that lousy potato famine?